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Why does pottery become scarce during the Saxon/Anglian period...
kevin wooldridge Wrote:Afterthought: It occurred to me that the Roman withdrawal at the beginning of the 5th century has a potential parallel with those who are pressing for the UK to leave the EU after the next general election. Could archaeology provide a valuable parallel for what happens when a country is economically separated from a trading market it has come to rely on in its recent past? Welcome to the Dark Ages!

Do you think the UK will run low on pots, plates and cups if we leave the EU ?
Mike.T. Wrote:Do you think the UK will run low on pots, plates and cups if we leave the EU ?
A lot of the cheaper ceramic currently on sale in the UK are made in Spain.....They will certainly become more expensive if we leave the EU....
With peace and consolation hath dismist, And calm of mind all passion spent...
Dang! Yet ANOTHER essential product to stock up on before the economic apocalypse hits...

("But aside from all that, what did the Romans ever do for us?")
No space, what with the stockpile of free carrier bags :face-crying:
Marc Berger Wrote:... what ever century what ever potty ain't there, you will always be up against absence of evidence is not evidence of absence.

im not saying the people are not there i am saying thet didnt use pottery in the mid saxon except for the east coast (ipswich central) - feel free to sep in paul. the question remains why not?
If they can get you asking the wrong questions, they don't have to worry about answers
east coast is mid saxon. The celtic areas seem to carry on much as before = very coarse ware. The problem with saying that pottery is not abundant or does not exist rest squarely with comparison with the romans over abundance and visibility in the record. To have a bit more transition maybe the Roman period should be pushed back into the fourth how about 326 as the start of the Byzantium Empire and by implication the end of the Romans. Its not as if the roads lead there any more- try a bit of this
.....nature was dead and the past does not exist
there are large parts of the uk where the absence of evidence is evidence of absence in teh mid saxon period - nothing to do with roman comparitors
If they can get you asking the wrong questions, they don't have to worry about answers
How safe is the 'absence of evidence'? I've recently had occasion to point out at the end of a lecture that, based on the current archaeological evidence, for a large chunk of Yorkshire the Roman period by-and-large only actually occurs in a 150m wide strip [the Roman Rural Settlement project looks like it's going to bear this out, judging by what I've seen of their 'spots on maps'], but of course this may or may not be entirely due to 90%+ of the archaeology in the area in the last 75 years having been done on a single on-going road improvement...
...oh, and nearly all the anglo-saxon pot (of which there's quite a lot, actually) happens in the same strip, for some reason :face-thinks:
Clearly, the Anglo-Saxons were using the Roman roads as major arteries in order to take over the country. Simples.

And for leaving pots.
Your Courage Your Cheerfulness Your Resolution
Will Bring US Victory

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