26th February 2006, 02:54 PM
So, the developer wants to "recover his costs". Does he seriously expect us to believe that his development won't be profitable as a result of the archaeological works. If this is the case then perhaps, having been quoted ?39k for the works, as well as a specified length of time in which they would be completed (in the form of the archaeological unit's tender for the work), he could have recognised that it wouldn't be profitable to continue with the development and built his shoebox houses somewhere else? Or is this just a case of him being greedy?